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100% Pass CBIC CIC - Fantastic CBIC Certified Infection Control Exam Exam Tutorial

The CBIC CIC certification is on trending nowadays, and many IT aspirants are trying to get it. Success in the CIC test helps you land well-paying jobs. Additionally, the CBIC CIC certification exam is also beneficial to get promotions in your current company. But the main problem that every applicant faces while preparing for the CIC Certification test is not finding updated CBIC CIC practice questions.

CBIC Certified Infection Control Exam Sample Questions (Q14-Q19):

NEW QUESTION # 14
Surgical site infection (SSI) data for the previous quarter reveal the following numbers. The surgeon with the highest infection rate is Doctor

A. Brown
B. Jones.
C. Smith
D. White

Answer: D

Explanation:
To determine which surgeon has the highest surgical site infection (SSI) rate, use the following formula:
A screenshot of a report AI-generated content may be incorrect.

Since Dr. White has the highest SSI rate at 9.1%, the correct answer is D. White.
CBIC Infection Control Reference
SSI rates are calculated using infection count per total procedures and reported as percentage values.

NEW QUESTION # 15
Which of the following individuals should be excluded from receiving live attenuated influenza virus?

A. Healthy persons aged 2 to 49
B. Persons with allergies to chicken feathers
C. Persons simultaneously receiving an inactivated vaccine
D. Pregnant persons

Answer: D

Explanation:
The correct answer is A, "Pregnant persons," as they should be excluded from receiving the live attenuated influenza virus (LAIV) vaccine. According to the Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) guidelines, which align with recommendations from the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP), the LAIV, commonly known as the nasal spray flu vaccine, contains a live attenuated form of the influenza virus. This vaccine is contraindicated in pregnant individuals due to the theoretical risk of the attenuated virus replicating and potentially harming the fetus, despite limited evidence of adverse outcomes (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.2 - Implement measures to prevent transmission of infectious agents).
Pregnant persons are instead recommended to receive the inactivated influenza vaccine (IIV), which is considered safe during pregnancy.
Option B (healthy persons aged 2 to 49) is incorrect because this group is generally eligible to receive LAIV, provided they have no other contraindications, as the vaccine is approved for healthy, non-pregnant individuals in this age range (CDC Immunization Schedules, 2024). Option C (persons with allergies to chicken feathers) is not a contraindication for LAIV; the vaccine is produced in eggs, and while egg allergy was historically a concern, current guidelines indicate that LAIV can be administered to persons with egg allergies if they can tolerate egg in their diet, with precautions managed by healthcare providers. Option D (persons simultaneously receiving an inactivated vaccine) is also incorrect, as LAIV can be co-administered with inactivated vaccines without issue, according to ACIP recommendations, as there is no significant interference between the two vaccine types.
The exclusion of pregnant persons reflects CBIC's emphasis on tailoring infection prevention strategies, including vaccination programs, to protect vulnerable populations while minimizing risks (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.1 - Collaborate with organizational leaders). This decision is based on precautionary principles outlined in CDC and ACIP guidelines to ensure maternal and fetal safety (CDC Prevention and Control of Seasonal Influenza with Vaccines, 2023).
References: CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competencies 3.1 - Collaborate with organizational leaders, 3.2 - Implement measures to prevent transmission of infectious agents. CDC Prevention and Control of Seasonal Influenza with Vaccines, 2023. CDC Immunization Schedules, 2024.

NEW QUESTION # 16
Which of the following microorganisms does NOT cause gastroenteritis in humans?

A. Rhinovirus
B. Coxsackievirus
C. Norovirus
D. Rotavirus

Answer: A

Explanation:
Gastroenteritis, characterized by inflammation of the stomach and intestines, typically presents with symptoms such as diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. The Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) emphasizes the identification of infectious agents in the "Identification of Infectious Disease Processes" domain, aligning with the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) guidelines on foodborne and enteric diseases. The question requires identifying the microorganism among the options that does not cause gastroenteritis, necessitating an evaluation of each pathogen's clinical associations.
Option B, "Rhinovirus," is the correct answer as it does not cause gastroenteritis. Rhinoviruses are the primary cause of the common cold, affecting the upper respiratory tract and leading to symptoms like runny nose, sore throat, and cough. The CDC and WHO classify rhinoviruses as picornaviruses that replicate in the nasopharynx, with no significant evidence linking them to gastrointestinal illness in humans. Their transmission is primarily through respiratory droplets, not the fecal-oral route associated with gastroenteritis.
Option A, "Norovirus," is a well-known cause of gastroenteritis, often responsible for outbreaks of acute vomiting and diarrhea, particularly in closed settings like cruise ships or nursing homes. The CDC identifies norovirus as the leading cause of foodborne illness in the U.S., transmitted via the fecal-oral route. Option C,
"Rotavirus," is a major cause of severe diarrheal disease in infants and young children worldwide, also transmitted fecal-orally, with the CDC noting its significance before widespread vaccination reduced its impact. Option D, "Coxsackievirus," a member of the enterovirus genus, can cause gastroenteritis, particularly in children, alongside other syndromes like hand-foot-mouth disease. The CDC and clinical literature (e.g., Mandell, Douglas, and Bennett's Principles and Practice of Infectious Diseases) document its gastrointestinal involvement, though it is less common than norovirus or rotavirus.
The CBIC Practice Analysis (2022) and CDC guidelines on enteric pathogens underscore the importance of distinguishing between respiratory and gastrointestinal pathogens for effective infection control. Rhinovirus's exclusive association with respiratory illness makes Option B the microorganism that does not cause gastroenteritis.
References:
* CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022.
* CDC Norovirus Fact Sheet, 2021.
* CDC Rotavirus Vaccination Information, 2020.
* Mandell, Douglas, and Bennett's Principles and Practice of Infectious Diseases, 9th Edition, 2019.

NEW QUESTION # 17
A suspected measles case has been identified in an outpatient clinic without an airborne infection isolation room (AIIR). Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

A. Patient should be sent home
B. Patient should be masked and placed in a private room with door closed.
C. Patient should be offered the Measles. Mumps, Rubella (MMR) vaccine
D. Staff should don a respirator, gown, and face shield.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Measles is a highly contagious airborne disease, and the best immediate action in an outpatient clinic without an Airborne Infection Isolation Room (AIIR) is to mask the patient and isolate them in a private room with the door closed.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect?
* A. Patient should be sent home - While home isolation may be necessary, sending the patient home without proper precautions increases exposure risk.
* B. Staff should don a respirator, gown, and face shield - While N95 respirators are necessary for staff, this does not address patient containment.
* C. Patient should be offered the MMR vaccine - The vaccine does not treat active measles infection and should be given only as post-exposure prophylaxis to susceptible contacts.
CBIC Infection Control Reference
Measles cases in outpatient settings require immediate airborne precautions to prevent transmission.

NEW QUESTION # 18
To understand how their hospital-acquired infection rates compare to other health care settings, an infection preventionist (IP) plans to use benchmarking.
Which of the following criteria is important to ensure accurate benchmarking of surveillance data?

A. Data collectors are trained on how to collect data
B. Using case definitions that are adjusted for the patient population being studied
C. Collecting data on a small population lo ensure accuracy of data collection
D. Denominator rates are selected based on an organizational risk assessment

Answer: B

Explanation:
Benchmarking compares infection rates across healthcare facilities. For accurate benchmarking, case definitions must be standardized and adjusted for patient demographics, severity of illness, and other risk factors.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect?
* A. Data collectors are trained on how to collect data - Training is necessary, but it does not directly ensure comparability between facilities.
* B. Collecting data on a small population - A larger sample size increases accuracy and reliability in benchmarking.
* C. Denominator rates selected based on an organizational risk assessment - Risk assessment is important, but standardized case definitions are critical for comparison.
CBIC Infection Control Reference
According to APIC, accurate benchmarking relies on using standardized case definitions that account for differences in patient populations.

NEW QUESTION # 19
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